Guest guest Posted November 23, 2008 Report Share Posted November 23, 2008 HIV Tests are Totally Opposite of The Immune Theory YET, they are based on the Immune Theory of disease because they measure antibodies. " [in order to do a proper test] . . . extraordinarily high dilution of the person's serum [400 times] took me by surprise. Most serologic tests that look for the presence of antibodies against germs uses neat serum [undiluted]. For example, the tests that look for antibodies to hepatitis A and B viruses, rubella virus, syphilis, hystoplasma and cryptococus, to mention a few of them, use straight serum [undiluted]. However, to try to prevent false positive reactions some serologic tests use diluted serum; for example this is the case with tests that look for antibodies to measles, varicelia and mumps viruses which use a dilution of 1:16, to cytomegalovirus [CMV] 1:20 and to Epstein-Barr Virus [EBV] 1:10. The obvious questions are: What makes HIV so unique that the test serum needs to be diluted 400 times? And what would happen if the individual's serum is not diluted? I first took samples of blood that, at 1:400 dilution, tested negative for antibodies to HIV. I then ran the exact same serum samples through the test again, but this time without diluting them. Tested straight, they all came positive. This would probably mean that the blood that is negative when diluted, but positive when undiluted, has a lower level of antibodies than the diluted blood that is doubly positive and, therefore, may probably test negative on the Western blot test. The results presented here could also mean that the tests used for detecting antibodies to HIV are not specific for HIV, as has been explained previously7-4. In this case, there would be reasons other than HIV infection, past or present, to explain why a person reacts positive to it. The test also reacts positive in the absence of HIV (7-14). Since people are reacting positive on tests that are not specific for HIV, let's please stop labeling them as " HIV positive " . See this article for more details about how the Antibody Theory is False: http://www.healingnaturallybybee.com/articles/germ13.php Also see: " Medical Tests - Manufacturing Certainty in Pseudo (fake) Science " http://www.healingnaturallybybee.com/articles/corrupt9.php " Antibody Ruse and False Science " http://www.healingnaturallybybee.com/articles/germ1.php " Antibody Theory Debunked " http://www.healingnaturallybybee.com/articles/germ2.php Bee Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted November 23, 2008 Report Share Posted November 23, 2008 This is real strange to me since my wife has had like 10 tests and they all showed the same that she has HIV, her son was born and like all babies born to mom's with HIV he did in fact test positive for HIV for around a year when it went away as in I think 30% of all babies born to HIV moms. Then there is the matter of me. for a while we did know she had HIV and we did not practice safe sex and not that we do that everytime, but I have had like 15 HIV tests and they all showed me not to have HIV. To be honest I am not sure that I understand all of this that you post; but I have been to word 986 at SF General and I know what HIV looks like first hand and am sure that the two HIV tests they have are fairly certain although there are indeed falce postives. Bee wrote: HIV Tests are Totally Opposite of The Immune Theory YET, they are based on the Immune Theory of disease because they measure antibodies. " [in order to do a proper test] . . . extraordinarily high dilution of the person's serum [400 times] took me by surprise. Most serologic tests that look for the presence of antibodies against germs uses neat serum [undiluted]. For example, the tests that look for antibodies to hepatitis A and B viruses, rubella virus, syphilis, hystoplasma and cryptococus, to mention a few of them, use straight serum [undiluted]. However, to try to prevent false positive reactions some serologic tests use diluted serum; for example this is the case with tests that look for antibodies to measles, varicelia and mumps viruses which use a dilution of 1:16, to cytomegalovirus [CMV] 1:20 and to Epstein-Barr Virus [EBV] 1:10. The obvious questions are: What makes HIV so unique that the test serum needs to be diluted 400 times? And what would happen if the individual's serum is not diluted? I first took samples of blood that, at 1:400 dilution, tested negative for antibodies to HIV. I then ran the exact same serum samples through the test again, but this time without diluting them. Tested straight, they all came positive. This would probably mean that the blood that is negative when diluted, but positive when undiluted, has a lower level of antibodies than the diluted blood that is doubly positive and, therefore, may probably test negative on the Western blot test. The results presented here could also mean that the tests used for detecting antibodies to HIV are not specific for HIV, as has been explained previously7- 4. In this case, there would be reasons other than HIV infection, past or present, to explain why a person reacts positive to it. The test also reacts positive in the absence of HIV (7-14). Since people are reacting positive on tests that are not specific for HIV, let's please stop labeling them as " HIV positive " . <snip> Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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