Guest guest Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 Hi Liz: Perhaps this will help. Only 2.3% pf the population die of colon cancer. That study only looked at how many die of it between ages 50 and 60. Some die of it before 50. Lots die of it after 50. So in the groups they studied the percentage dying between 50 and 60 ranged between 1% and 2%. Understandably. BUT, there is a BIG difference between 1.86% dying between ages 50 and 60 and only 1.28%. 1.86% is 45% higher than 1.28%. But even that understates it because some of the big meat eaters also eat some fish. So the number for those who eat lots of meat and NO fish at all is almost certainly higher than 1.86%. Similarly, some of the big fish eaters also eat some meat. So among those who eat lots of fish and no meat at all the number is almost certainly less than 1.28%. Suppose those numbers are 1.96% compared with 1.15%. Then the chances that the big-meat-only-eaters will get colon cancer is 70% greater than the chances a big-fish-only-eater will. ............. because 1.96 is 70% greater than 1.15. Do you see? Rodney. > Thanks, Maco. I hate to appear ignorant, but it's been a long long > time since I took statistics. Could somebody explain where that 40% > number comes from, when all I see is the ~.5% difference I pointed out > above? > > Thanks, > > -Liz Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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