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hey peoples,

Listen I was looking at the statement that Dr. Ablashis Washtington DC lab

printed for me about my spinal tap done at Dr. 's office. It says

that " ACTIVE " HHV-6 is detected in my cerebrospinal fluid.

Now, mind you, the infectious disease specialist at UCSF shook his head and

refused to give it any credence, and refused to " treat " it.

But what I am trying to understand is, how can Dr. Ablashi know that it is

ACTIVE virus, versus INACTIVE virus? And if the difference is noticeable, why

would an infectious disease specialist poo-poo it?

By the way, does anyone here think that having active HHV-6 detected in my

spinal fluid is significant? Most of the studies I have read are not giving

me much of a clue.

Any thoughts?

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