Hi Can someone help me understand my MRI report

[Guest guest]

Mri of left knee:

history: left knee pain /swelling.

Technique: Fast spin echo sagittal , axial and coronal images of the

left knee were obtained as well as fat suppression sagittal.

Findings:

There is no fracture or osteonecrosis.l The anterior and posterior

cruciate ligaments are intact. Slight thinckening of the proximal

superficial fibers of the medial collateral ligament is noted in

resonse to previous injury. The lateral collateral ligament and

popliteus tendon are intact.

There is intrasubstace degenerative signal in the medial and the

lateral meniscus but no extension to the meniscal surface to suggest

a tear.

Cartilage at the medial femorotibial compartment is relatively

intact.

Page 2.

There is slight fibrillation of the cartilage at the lateral femoral

condyle. Lateral tibial plateau cartilage is intact. The trochlea

is preserved. There is slight hyperintense signal in the inferior

aspect of the lateral patellar facet consistent with mild

chondromalacia. The extensor tendons are intact. The retinaculi

are preserved. Only minimal fluid is noted in the joint.

Conclusion:

Mri of the left knee demstrates only mild chondromalacia petella and

minimal fibrillation along the lateral femoral condyle surface.

There is no meniscal tear.

Can anyone better explain this to me?

Thank you

Jen

[Guest guest]

Well, firstly, MRI's miss a lot of things. (But don't let them talk you into a

CT scan -- too much radiation.)

Secondly, the " intrasubstance degenerative signal in the medial and the

lateral meniscus " could mean tears even if they didn't show up. My new OS says

meniscal tears sometimes don't show up unless they use a contrast dye in the

MRI, which fills up the tears. I'm about to have one of those. I don't now why

they don't use dye in regular knee MRI's.

Thirdly, in my experience, an MRI won't necessarily show the degree of

chondromalacia you have. This sentence is puzzling: " Cartilage at the medial

femorotibial compartment is relatively intact. " Relatively? Meaning it's

shredding a " little " ?

I'd suggest that you ask for a contrast MRI, then an arthroscopic exam to find

out what's really going on in there. The " slight fibrillation " of the cartilage

may be raggedness caused by wear.

It's too bad there's no Tricorder for the knee.

Ann

Hi Can someone help me understand my MRI

report

Mri of left knee:

history: left knee pain /swelling.

Technique: Fast spin echo sagittal , axial and coronal images of the

left knee were obtained as well as fat suppression sagittal.

Findings:

There is no fracture or osteonecrosis.l The anterior and posterior

cruciate ligaments are intact. Slight thinckening of the proximal

superficial fibers of the medial collateral ligament is noted in

resonse to previous injury. The lateral collateral ligament and

popliteus tendon are intact.

There is intrasubstace degenerative signal in the medial and the

lateral meniscus but no extension to the meniscal surface to suggest

a tear.

Cartilage at the medial femorotibial compartment is relatively

intact.

Page 2.

There is slight fibrillation of the cartilage at the lateral femoral

condyle. Lateral tibial plateau cartilage is intact. The trochlea

is preserved. There is slight hyperintense signal in the inferior

aspect of the lateral patellar facet consistent with mild

chondromalacia. The extensor tendons are intact. The retinaculi

are preserved. Only minimal fluid is noted in the joint.

Conclusion:

Mri of the left knee demstrates only mild chondromalacia petella and

minimal fibrillation along the lateral femoral condyle surface.

There is no meniscal tear.

Can anyone better explain this to me?

Thank you

Jen

[Guest guest]

I dont know whats going on I called a doctor today who talked alot about Condro

on his website and on kneeguru - does not accept my insurance BC/BS- what else

is new. No one seems to accept it anymore. The secretary tells me most

SPECIALIST now dont accept insurance. But, he did accept ins. Just not mine. So

now I'm frustrated.

Yeah, that part where they said " Relatively intact " puzzled me as well - either

it is or it isnt. and the fluid what could that be they didnt specify?

Are Mri with contrast painful? I'm guessing the dye is injected straight into

the knee right?

Thank you

Jen

Hi Can someone help me understand my MRI

report

Mri of left knee:

history: left knee pain /swelling.

Technique: Fast spin echo sagittal , axial and coronal images of the

left knee were obtained as well as fat suppression sagittal.

Findings:

There is no fracture or osteonecrosis. l The anterior and posterior

cruciate ligaments are intact. Slight thinckening of the proximal

superficial fibers of the medial collateral ligament is noted in

resonse to previous injury. The lateral collateral ligament and

popliteus tendon are intact.

There is intrasubstace degenerative signal in the medial and the

lateral meniscus but no extension to the meniscal surface to suggest

a tear.

Cartilage at the medial femorotibial compartment is relatively

intact.

Page 2.

There is slight fibrillation of the cartilage at the lateral femoral

condyle. Lateral tibial plateau cartilage is intact. The trochlea

is preserved. There is slight hyperintense signal in the inferior

aspect of the lateral patellar facet consistent with mild

chondromalacia. The extensor tendons are intact. The retinaculi

are preserved. Only minimal fluid is noted in the joint.

Conclusion:

Mri of the left knee demstrates only mild chondromalacia petella and

minimal fibrillation along the lateral femoral condyle surface.

There is no meniscal tear.

Can anyone better explain this to me?

Thank you

Jen

[Guest guest]

Where are you? Specialists here (WA) accept insurance, including BC/BS. Also

CA. It's absurd if specialists stop accepting insurance. How many people out

there can pay for surgery out of their pocket???

No, MRI's w/contrast are not painful, though your body may feel hot (some

reaction w/the thyroid), but this may not apply if they inject it right into the

knee. If you're allergic to shellfish, they may have to use another dye, so be

sure to tell them if you are. I'm not sure whether the dye is injected straight

into the knee. I hadn't thought about it. I'll be able to tell you after the

21st. Now that you say that, it makes sense. So the extra volume (however much

it is) might make the knee hurt some, and you know how swelling can interfere

with walking, bending the knee, etc. So until the fluid goes away, you'd

probably have some pain just from the extra volume.

Ann

Hi Can someone help me understand my MRI

report

Mri of left knee:

history: left knee pain /swelling.

Technique: Fast spin echo sagittal , axial and coronal images of the

left knee were obtained as well as fat suppression sagittal.

Findings:

There is no fracture or osteonecrosis. l The anterior and posterior

cruciate ligaments are intact. Slight thinckening of the proximal

superficial fibers of the medial collateral ligament is noted in

resonse to previous injury. The lateral collateral ligament and

popliteus tendon are intact.

There is intrasubstace degenerative signal in the medial and the

lateral meniscus but no extension to the meniscal surface to suggest

a tear.

Cartilage at the medial femorotibial compartment is relatively

intact.

Page 2.

There is slight fibrillation of the cartilage at the lateral femoral

condyle. Lateral tibial plateau cartilage is intact. The trochlea

is preserved. There is slight hyperintense signal in the inferior

aspect of the lateral patellar facet consistent with mild

chondromalacia. The extensor tendons are intact. The retinaculi

are preserved. Only minimal fluid is noted in the joint.

Conclusion:

Mri of the left knee demstrates only mild chondromalacia petella and

minimal fibrillation along the lateral femoral condyle surface.

There is no meniscal tear.

Can anyone better explain this to me?

Thank you

Jen