Guest guest Posted December 10, 2008 Report Share Posted December 10, 2008 Considering that at least four studies have shown that the impact of flu vaccine upon hospitalizations and death from the flu have been nil, how can they possibly say that half a dose is as effective as a full dose? That is to saym unless they mean that a half-dose is equally as ineffective as a full dose, in which case I should like to point out that no dose is also just as effective as a full or half dose, and not only costs considerably less money to distribute and store, but also has an inherrantly higher magnitude of subscription compliance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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