Re: different in each ear; ototoxics

[Guest guest]

I found Dr. Bauman's answer (taken from his book and his research on

Kalkanis, 2001):

Ototoxic drugs almost always cause sensorineural hearing losses as opposed

to conductive losses. Hearing loss can range from mild high-frequency loss

to total deafness. Also, *drug-induced hearing loss is generally, but not

always, the same in both ears (bilaterally symmetrical), but it can be

asymmetrical (different in each ear).* Sensorineural hearing loss may be

permanent or temporary depending on the drug and a number of other factors.

Robin T. in NC

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> That's a great question and I have no earthly idea. in GA

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> ototoxic drugs

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> >One of the three is gentamycin or a cousin of it like Amikacin. in

> GA

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> >Does anyone know if gentamycin (or other ototoxic drugs) would cause

> unilateral or different hearing loss in each ear?

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> >[

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