Guest guest Posted May 17, 2002 Report Share Posted May 17, 2002 Last semester I had a teacher who had a fair case of psoriasis, and I worked up the courage to ask her about the condition without making myself look like too much of a jackass. She said she has taken medication that lessens the immune system's response ( forget the name ) and that her skin is now much improved. Anyone else doing the same for rosacea? Perhaps if we find enough people that have taken any of these type medications against the immune system we'll be closer to drawing a correlation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 18, 2002 Report Share Posted May 18, 2002 I read your post and wanted to jump up and down. When I read Dr. Nase's book on rosacea, though he doesn't necessarily state this, I immediately thought that the reaction involved in rosacea may be immune mediated. When taking a course this past semester in nutritional immunology, my thoughts became even stronger along this line. I have thought that perhaps rosacea is an auto-immune disorder. Does my thinking seem far-fetched? emarjency emarjency@...> wrote: Adam, that's an intellectually sophisticated observation. It may well be that NO isn't as involved in rosacea-induced flushing as originally hypothesized, or it may be that imperfect research and/or imperfect topical preparations are delaying the transition from basic science to practical clinical benefits. There are other possibilities as well. I have another theory, although I say this with full realization of my limited knowledge base, that I'm probably totally wrong. That's the thing with theories -- they sound great but they're a dime a dozen to create, and unless they're proven they mean nothing compared to another good theory. Anyway, with that disclaimer, here's my thinking at present: after reading the stories here, learning more on a number of levels, and thinking about it over the past few months, I'm coming to believe that rosacea is primarily an immune-mediated disorder, not primarily a vascular disorder. Let me explain by way of this example: if I were to hit your face hard, strike your cheek several times, in short order your cheek would turn red and begin to hurt: the skin on your cheek would begin to flush and burn. We both know that the cause of the flush wasn't something out of the blue, wasn't something due to vascular problems - - your cheek's flush and pain is a normal response to the skin being stimulated, " injured " by my slaps. Now, imagine if you didn't know that I slapped you -- you were asleep or drunk or something -- and woke up with a flushed, painful cheek. You would try to attribute that flush to something -- food, the weather, the UV lights in the club the night before, stress at work -- and, failing to do that, you would think you had a primary flushing disorder. A slap is a pretty obvious stimuli to a flush, but what if there was something just as likely to induce a flush but wasn't so obvious? What if an immune-related substance was inside the dermis layer of the cheek -- something that would irritate like a slap, but painlessly at first and from within? This unknown substance would release a cascade of chemical reactions typical for soon-to-be- inflammed skin: it would attract increased blood flow to the local area, pain and swelling and itching might develop, and as the pores responded to the inflammation within a day or so pustules and papules would develop as well. The cheek would flush not because of a primary vascular abnormality but because of something that tripped an immunologic reaction, a reaction that included vascular dilation. What are the features of this hidden substance that we theorize is immunologically active (meaning that it capable of initiating the immunologic cascade, as described in the above paragraph)? For starters, it would be disproportionally represented in fair skinned people -- others could get it too, but we're talking generalities here. It would slowly manifest over one or more decades -- again a generality, but typically true. Also as a generality, many would respond to 6-12 week course of antibiotics which is thought to be anti-inflammatory; indeed, it's responsive to many anti-inflammatory agents. Finally, the myriad of manifestations could be explained by individual variance within the common immune active pathway -- some with more flushing than others, some with itching, many with papules but not everyone, etc. None of these sound like problems with food or problems with stress management -- fair-skinned people don't differ from others to account for these difference, for example. But a genetic cause for the inflammation could account for all this, some aberrant gene that now codes for a substance that goes to the dermis of the central face and stimulates some part of the immune sytem. Perhaps the gene is located close enough to the genes that control skin pigment so that the two traits would travel together most but not all of the time. Or, the aberrant gene is present in many people, but those with fair skin are for some reason especially sensitive to immune aberration. The gene need not, in fact would not be expected to follow classic Mendelian genetics. It might be inducible by other factors, or only partially expressed. A primary immunologic disorder also nicely accounts for the association (not causal, but observed co- pairing) of rosacea with other immune-related disorders, many of which are also thought to have a genetic basis. So, that's how I would explain why the research on neuropeptides doesn't seem to be panning out. Neuropeptides are likely involved but may not be the primary culprit causing facial flushing, it may *not* be that repeated dilations lead to vascular wall injury, causing immune active substances already present in the blood to leak into the dermis of the central face. It may be the other way around -- immune active substances already in the dermis activate NO synthase to increase NO production and cause vasodilation, along with the other immune responses. As a dependent rather than causal agent, NO synthase would probably have to be completely shut down, not just decreased as would be the case if it were more active or present in too high amounts, as the vascular theory explains. Shutting it down completely may be very hard to do, because of all the compensatory mechanisms that would prevent complete breakdown of vasodilation. I don't have nearly enough knowledge to defend this, but I know many people favor rosacea as primarily an immunologic disorder with thinking along this line. When I first learned about rosacea I didn't buy it, but now, increasingly, I do. This group is disproportionally, almost exclusively, favoring the vascular theory so we don't talk about other mainstream medical theories much. Marjorie Marjorie Lazoff, MD -- Please read the list highlights before posting to the whole group (http://rosacea.ii.net/toc.html). Your post will be delayed if you don't give a meaningful subject or trim your reply text. You must change the subject when replying to a digest ! See http://www.drnase.com for info on his recently published book. To leave the list send an email to rosacea-support-unsubscribe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 18, 2002 Report Share Posted May 18, 2002 I read your post and wanted to jump up and down. When I read Dr. Nase's book on rosacea, though he doesn't necessarily state this, I immediately thought that the reaction involved in rosacea may be immune mediated. When taking a course this past semester in nutritional immunology, my thoughts became even stronger along this line. I have thought that perhaps rosacea is an auto-immune disorder. Does my thinking seem far-fetched? emarjency emarjency@...> wrote: Adam, that's an intellectually sophisticated observation. It may well be that NO isn't as involved in rosacea-induced flushing as originally hypothesized, or it may be that imperfect research and/or imperfect topical preparations are delaying the transition from basic science to practical clinical benefits. There are other possibilities as well. I have another theory, although I say this with full realization of my limited knowledge base, that I'm probably totally wrong. That's the thing with theories -- they sound great but they're a dime a dozen to create, and unless they're proven they mean nothing compared to another good theory. Anyway, with that disclaimer, here's my thinking at present: after reading the stories here, learning more on a number of levels, and thinking about it over the past few months, I'm coming to believe that rosacea is primarily an immune-mediated disorder, not primarily a vascular disorder. Let me explain by way of this example: if I were to hit your face hard, strike your cheek several times, in short order your cheek would turn red and begin to hurt: the skin on your cheek would begin to flush and burn. We both know that the cause of the flush wasn't something out of the blue, wasn't something due to vascular problems - - your cheek's flush and pain is a normal response to the skin being stimulated, " injured " by my slaps. Now, imagine if you didn't know that I slapped you -- you were asleep or drunk or something -- and woke up with a flushed, painful cheek. You would try to attribute that flush to something -- food, the weather, the UV lights in the club the night before, stress at work -- and, failing to do that, you would think you had a primary flushing disorder. A slap is a pretty obvious stimuli to a flush, but what if there was something just as likely to induce a flush but wasn't so obvious? What if an immune-related substance was inside the dermis layer of the cheek -- something that would irritate like a slap, but painlessly at first and from within? This unknown substance would release a cascade of chemical reactions typical for soon-to-be- inflammed skin: it would attract increased blood flow to the local area, pain and swelling and itching might develop, and as the pores responded to the inflammation within a day or so pustules and papules would develop as well. The cheek would flush not because of a primary vascular abnormality but because of something that tripped an immunologic reaction, a reaction that included vascular dilation. What are the features of this hidden substance that we theorize is immunologically active (meaning that it capable of initiating the immunologic cascade, as described in the above paragraph)? For starters, it would be disproportionally represented in fair skinned people -- others could get it too, but we're talking generalities here. It would slowly manifest over one or more decades -- again a generality, but typically true. Also as a generality, many would respond to 6-12 week course of antibiotics which is thought to be anti-inflammatory; indeed, it's responsive to many anti-inflammatory agents. Finally, the myriad of manifestations could be explained by individual variance within the common immune active pathway -- some with more flushing than others, some with itching, many with papules but not everyone, etc. None of these sound like problems with food or problems with stress management -- fair-skinned people don't differ from others to account for these difference, for example. But a genetic cause for the inflammation could account for all this, some aberrant gene that now codes for a substance that goes to the dermis of the central face and stimulates some part of the immune sytem. Perhaps the gene is located close enough to the genes that control skin pigment so that the two traits would travel together most but not all of the time. Or, the aberrant gene is present in many people, but those with fair skin are for some reason especially sensitive to immune aberration. The gene need not, in fact would not be expected to follow classic Mendelian genetics. It might be inducible by other factors, or only partially expressed. A primary immunologic disorder also nicely accounts for the association (not causal, but observed co- pairing) of rosacea with other immune-related disorders, many of which are also thought to have a genetic basis. So, that's how I would explain why the research on neuropeptides doesn't seem to be panning out. Neuropeptides are likely involved but may not be the primary culprit causing facial flushing, it may *not* be that repeated dilations lead to vascular wall injury, causing immune active substances already present in the blood to leak into the dermis of the central face. It may be the other way around -- immune active substances already in the dermis activate NO synthase to increase NO production and cause vasodilation, along with the other immune responses. As a dependent rather than causal agent, NO synthase would probably have to be completely shut down, not just decreased as would be the case if it were more active or present in too high amounts, as the vascular theory explains. Shutting it down completely may be very hard to do, because of all the compensatory mechanisms that would prevent complete breakdown of vasodilation. I don't have nearly enough knowledge to defend this, but I know many people favor rosacea as primarily an immunologic disorder with thinking along this line. When I first learned about rosacea I didn't buy it, but now, increasingly, I do. This group is disproportionally, almost exclusively, favoring the vascular theory so we don't talk about other mainstream medical theories much. Marjorie Marjorie Lazoff, MD -- Please read the list highlights before posting to the whole group (http://rosacea.ii.net/toc.html). Your post will be delayed if you don't give a meaningful subject or trim your reply text. You must change the subject when replying to a digest ! See http://www.drnase.com for info on his recently published book. To leave the list send an email to rosacea-support-unsubscribe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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